Before shooting 19 kids, 2 adults, gunman was all legal–see linked article



https://www.cbsnews.com/news/texas-school-shooting-ar15-gun-laws/

https://www.cbsnews.com/news/texas-school-shooting-ar15-gun-laws/https://www.cbsnews.com/news/texas-school-shooting-ar15-gun-laws/

You’ve heard about the latest school shooting?

19 kids, 2 adults, in a place I’d never heard of –Uvalde (spelling?), Texas. All shot to death in an elementary school by an 18 year old. And get this, the 18 year old was acting legally when he bought his weapons. Do we really have the right to atm ourselves with weapons of mass destruction. Buying the guns was legal but is it so far fetched to imagine things will quickly get illegal once those purchases are put to use.

Quick, get a colonial America linguistics expert

Do we understand the constitution? What did the phrase “bear arms” mean linguistically when it was memorialized in the second amendment. Maybe they meant we could have the weapons but it wasn’t for everyone to shoot. When a person comes “bearing” gifts, bearing means presenting, carrying, and implies the intention of giving them away. Maybe we quite misunderstand our role with guns. Perhaps it is our right to see to it that the proper people have them. Nowhere does it say we have the right to shoot or kill. Are people dying from either a misunderstanding or an interpretation of words that profits those who make guns?

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